The Workermonkey | ||
Saturday, September 24, 2005
6 commentsmany, many things. By josh, at Sunday, September 25, 2005 2:16:00 AM If the person can be clearly found guilty, then so what if there is a technecality in the State's constitution. Unless the right violation actually lead to to the crime or the conviction, it should not matter. By Damon, at Sunday, September 25, 2005 2:18:00 AM well that was my point. even though the guy committed the crime, assume the prosecution didnt have enough w/o the evidence obtained by violating the defendant's right. By josh, at Sunday, September 25, 2005 11:08:00 AM Oh ok, my opinion is that if the violation is directly related then it counts, if not, irrelevant. By Damon, at Sunday, September 25, 2005 12:09:00 PM I may be only half understanding the case you are presenting here but... it is my take (maybe from that one environmental law class in college) that the federal courts always trumps the states. In this case the state found him not-guilty due to the state constitution. However the state must still obey the federal constitution (being the highest power). It is set up like this for a reason- for example, Kansas could enact a constitution that burns all Aetheists at a stake. The Feds could then step in and say that is actually unconstitutional. We are the U.S.A. but still one nation goddamn it. By Brancibeer, at Monday, September 26, 2005 10:04:00 AM
haha, everything you said is true brancy, except that there are certain cases in which federal courts dont automatically have jurisdiction. they can't hear just anything. By josh, at Monday, September 26, 2005 11:02:00 AM Post a Comment |